Just finished questioning the bot and it gave me this:

• James Madison (Federalist No. 46):

“The advantage of being armed, which the Americans possess over the people of almost every other nation… forms a barrier against the enterprises of ambition.”

So, the 2nd amendment is preemptive. By disincentivizing oppressive ambitions, government overthrow is not necessary in the first place.

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You don't need weapons to effect a change in government.

https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Velvet_Revolution

> So, the 2nd amendment is preemptive. By disincentivizing oppressive ambitions, government overthrow is not necessary in the first place.

The US concentrated 120,000 Japanese descendants (mostly citizens) in camps during WWII. Apparently the disincentive is not very strong.

More guided research (cheating?) from the bot below.

Regarding the Velvet Revolution, communism was already in decline and, crucially, Gorbachev had signaled that it would no longer use military force to keep satellite states in line.

So, the Czechoslovak Communist Party knew Moscow wouldn’t send tanks like in 1968 (Prague Spring). Without that backing, their willingness to violently crack down was weaker.

So peaceful worked but, at least partially, by coincidence.

Also read that during Prague Spring a 20 year old named, Jan Palach, committed suicide by setting himself on fire in protest.

To more directly respond, perhaps the second amendment is about preventing change, rather than effecting it?

Yes, perhaps.