There's a categorical difference in influencing one another and what the US/UK has been doing in the ME since 18th century.
Discussion
No argument from me on *that* point.
I’m only questioning the professor’s bias and pointing to the many examples in history where countries “influence” others (by various means both peaceful and not). Note that I’m not saying that this makes it okay, just that it’s disingenuous to claim otherwise, or that the US/UK are somehow unique in this.