How do you reconcile this with a land grant? Can all Christians claim title to a particular parcel of real estate in the Middle East?

Reply to this note

Please Login to reply.

Discussion

The land grant was fulfilled, their tenure their was dependent on obedience. It was a typoligical recapitulation of Adam in the Garden, and the purpose was to ahow that "the just shall live by faith [of Abraham]." Paul tells us that all the promises [to Abraham] are fulfilled in Christ, and that the inheritance (for the meek, one might say) is the whole earth--and it always was.

Romans 4:13 KJV — For the promise, that he should be the heir of the world, was not to Abraham, or to his seed, through the law, but through the righteousness of faith.

See Genesis 15. The land grant was unconditional. Only God performed the cutting procedure. Abram was asleep. Furthermore, neither Genesis 13 nor Genesis 15 recites any conditions. You are performing eisegesis not exegesis.

Only if Paul is.

(And he isn't.)

I'm also aware that the nature, role, and function of the Mosaic economy vs the Abrahamic covenant is one of the most debated isses in the history of Reformed theology. E.g., was the moral law given to Adam in the garden republished under Moses in an administrative, substantive, or typological way? The typological seems, to me, to make the most sense of the whole counsel of God. There are deeper questions too about its nature, role, and function *for those in Adam* vs. *for Christ* (Gal. 4) as well, with the pactum salutis in the background...