I was wrong about divorce penalties. It cannot mention divorce, at all, as that would be assuming a future condition and go against CIC 1102.
It may signal that, as I wrote in the other thread, but only so long as it isn't the de facto standard marriage contract (because everyone has one) and/or it contains clauses to make divorce easier or more-likely. If it contains additional divorce penalties and clarifies inheritence rules for property brought into a marriage, for example, it shows no lack of commitment.
Also, it's not grounds for annulment, but can be used as evidence in an annulment (which usually takes place after a civil divorce).
https://catholicreview.org/question-corner-does-a-prenuptial-agreement-invalidate-a-marriage/
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