It can even be witnessed that in the best case scenario, in which price levels adjusted instantaneously and all in the same proportion to each other as before, the purchasing power of the cash and cash-denominated accounts that people hold is altered by as the inverse of the price change.

So even if wages, profits, and prices increased at the same exact rate and at the same time as the monetary base, everyone holding cash would be poorer by how much cash they held times the inflation rate.

Further, this change in the ratios of what resources people have (specifically monetary purchasing power to all other goods) will require them to purchase a lesser exchange value of goods, and this will also have them reasign their preferences on an individual level. Bith of these effects will alter the demands of every good relative to other goods differentially, including labor and capital.

(In practice, for a variety of reasons discussed in Austrian capital structure theory (which I am only beginning to learn) that have to do with the time of production, the real (purchasing power parity) price for labor is lowered as money is inflated, as compared to the 0% inflation and especially deflationary sound money counterfactual.)

So by simple, super duper simple basic ass logical thought experiments like I just came up with here, the whole concept of inflation distorting neither purchasing power nor relative prices is pretty clearly refuted.

nostr:npub1grk0tx6kqzvp86jvxzqmr8va2f0hdklj2xj6qwymf04z0saxhx8svlelrn (sorry haha) has absolutely no concept of reality, and should be tried in court for negligible stupidity.