That's not demand for money, those are prices/worth as measured in different things.

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the Austrian School generally treats money as a commodity, it's price measured by its purchasing power.

if people have higher demand for money, it would naturally be more expensive as measured by other goods.

just like the demanded for *anything is measured by its price, there's no difference.

Ok, that makes sense. With demand defined as such I concede your argument.

i guess everything only makes sense given certain context and definitions

No, demand is finite in price theory. It has dimensions of quantity, price, and a curve moving along different quantities & prices. It also has many inputs that can be quantified by elasticities.

It is the individual's desire that may be considered infinite, but even them we have ordinal numbers to determine what desires are stronger.