Even after committing mortal sin without repentance? You mention sodomy, so clearly the baptized man in a state of grace would be accepted into heaven, but then if he chose's to commit the heinous act of sodomy would he then still be saved? Certainly not.

Then would you posit that he was never saved, and as such his baptism or confession would always be ineffective? Does this then claim that the sacraments are ineffectual and the grace of the Holy Spirit is absent from them?

Or would then you posit that this man never had the choice to commit sodomy, and he had no free will in the matter, that his salvation was always invalid because he had no choice but to commit sodomy? What then of free will? How can we choose to love God if we have no free will and all our actions are forced by Him? Does goodness exist without a conscious choice to commit it?

These are the 3 explanations that come to mind for the claim "once saved always saved". From this I conclude that it's not only counter to early to modern church teachings, but completely unsupported both by the Bible and early church father writings. But worse yet, it's illogical and leads to unaccountability and more sin in individuals.

Theosis.