What legal precedent if any exists, that allows the US to do what it did in Venezuela.
I don't need you to explain it, just point me in a direction.
I was a wee thing and not paying attention, but was Noriega in 1989 similar?
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I'm sure that was brought up as precedent for this, the similiarities of the leaders and the situation around them (rigged elections, drug trafficking) are wild.
I was but a wee boy myself.
Also I do believe Noriega declared war against the US.
