It's not that they wouldn't use the concept at all. It's that they wouldn't give it a causal status.

"How would they explain changes in the economy that à keynesian would attribute to velocity"

The wouldn't attribute changes in the economy to the Velocity of money. They might use it to see a change but it stops there. It's different to say that the Velocity caused à change rather than it beign a reflection a change.

I don't think any austrian would disagree with the Statement that faster paiements made for a higher Velocity of money. There's just not much to extrapolate from there. The higher number of transactions is à is caused by a réduction of friction between economic actors.

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