So why do they call these islands occupied? Isn’t it because they have shared interests with the Arab countries? Given that the ruling government has no real commitment to Iran’s territory, they won't respond to any of these actions. The people of Iran are their own sole supporters and must defend their homeland on their own.

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Could it be that those 3 islands are deemed "occupied" because the Iranian Imperial navy took them over in 1971 from those two Emirates?

Does the current government of Iran respect any country's territorial sovereignty?