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Don't know about the others, but I think if the consent is valid, then no offense has occurred. There was a notorious case about this in Germany maybe twenty years ago.

They stung the guy with desecrating a corpse or some such, couldn't get anything resembling murder to stick
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splinter 2y ago

Moral issues to the side, I think the main challenge here is proving there was genuine consent. I think this would be very hard to prove since one of the parties is dead.

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