Don't know about the others, but I think if the consent is valid, then no offense has occurred. There was a notorious case about this in Germany maybe twenty years ago.

They stung the guy with desecrating a corpse or some such, couldn't get anything resembling murder to stick

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Moral issues to the side, I think the main challenge here is proving there was genuine consent. I think this would be very hard to prove since one of the parties is dead.

Are you talking about the case where he ate him?

Yup. The victim asked to be eaten.

Very weird ppl...