When we say fractional reserve is fraudulent, I think most mean in the context of a fiat system with arbitrary bailouts

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It’s still all normative. Nothing you said changes my point in the slightest.

Not really, banks are using the entity will the monopoly on violence to implicitly break the debt contracts they entered into - that's fraud

Yes, the state has a monopoly on the legitimate use of violence. The point of this is to create dispute resolutions that do not require everyone resort to physical violence.

Saying that, in this case bank bailouts, are a legitimate use of state power is also a normative statement. And I disagree that it's legitimate.

The whole concept of “legitimate” is normative, by definition.

I don't even know what we're talking about anymore