Here's my question: if self-ownership is the *basis* for all property rights, then why did it take until the 20th century, for some guy named Murray Rothbard to realize that was the underlying truth of property?
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Here's my question: if self-ownership is the *basis* for all property rights, then why did it take until the 20th century, for some guy named Murray Rothbard to realize that was the underlying truth of property?
No replies yet.