I meant that once money was invented, man could store the excess production from their land in a currency. Before the advent of money, a farmer could only make what they could trade, before it spoiled.

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Ah. That is a much clearer point and I wouldn't argue with that.

Before money, there wasn’t any incentive to acquire as much land as one could.

I can't really agree with that, though. I think that's at least one or three steps too far without any real corroboration that I know of or can think of

I’d like to hear why you think that’s wrong?

What incentive would there to be own a large tract of land if you can’t store the wealth that it produces?