It changed in 1997, which I said. The Spanish areEuropeanss and therefore Hispanic right? But I guess the Portuguese are not Hispanic? Yet still Europeans? How about Brazilians? Not Hispanic? The asininity is my point Hispanic is a term used by MOST PEOPLE to refer to Latinos which are those of mostly South American decent.
Hispanic was part of a gamut of different races included in the form previously. Liberal morons made an arbitrary distinction between Spanish speaking countries and peoples and race. This is not something I am wrong about. Just think logically, what distinction is a spoken language making in reference to "Ethnicity?" How many countries speak Russian or French who could not be more opposed to the cultures of both of those countries respectively. Not to mention the Hispanic moniker really having no ties to the culture of Spain. At best this distinction is very arbitrary and at worst is utterly confusing.
Ethnic variables rely on a multitude of factors and selecting a single one would be as ridiculous as saying The French and Vietnamese are the same ethnic group because they both eat baguettes. The sole factor of "Speaks Spanish" is just as arbitrary and silly.
Overall it stands to reason that the way most people use Hispanic, barring use as an arbitrary ethnic class, is shorthand for Natitive South American. Ask around, see what your fellow man thinks.
"Hispanic was part of a gamut of different races included in the form previously."
Citation required. The article you shared before stated the opposite.
This is the crux of the disagreement so why not just show me that you're right?
I'll do most of the work for you and share a link to the 1990 census form:
https://www.census.gov/content/dam/Census/programs-surveys/decennial/technical-documentation/questionnaires/1990_questionnaire.pdf
Yes, disregard my entire argumentation for the way government forms are organized. Correct. I can't find what I remembered in the 90's. The article however refers to prior to 97 the single question was two SEPARATE forms. Reread the article. Regardless the disaggregation of grouped identities provides clarity whereas the aggregation of "People who speak Spanish" does not. Pedantry is about improving clarity. Siding with the expert class about arbitrary distinctions is being annoying.
To be succinct my mistake was that in reading the separate forms 25 years ago the government MUST have been redundant when using ethnicity and race interchangeably because no sane person would delineate "Speaks Spanish" as it's own separate true/false ethnic purity test for clarity. I assumed they meant race because the other option is asinine.
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