Okay, thanks for your answer!

But how to deal with #2 now? If you say #1 and #3 are correct, how can RE prices of today be the same as back then if we adjust for inflation?

Shouldn't #3 be wrong then? Without a relative increase in price there shouldn't be more problems for a family to buy a home today than back then.

OR is #3 still true because we need a #4:

#4 In comparison to inflation family wages have continuously fallen since 1971.

Is 4 true at all? Maybe I should visit wtfhappenedin1971.com once more... šŸ˜…

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Or maybe I should say "wages haven't been rising as much as inflation"... ?

#4 is true in the sense of: wages have not risen as much as the amount of money in supply. Since a lot of the money being introduced I to the economy finds its way I to real estate through loans, RE has risen almost on par with inflation. Makes sense ?

Yes, now it does.

I think my confusion also came from this article I remembered reading last year.

What do you think about this article? It makes everything kinda complicated, as it introduces some side topics. I guess it's also hard to find clear answers concerning RE when prices can be so different from region to region...

#m=image%2Fjpeg&dim=1080x1871&blurhash=%5D28%7DDS_N00%25M00Rjofofj%5BWBt7ozRiofoft8WBWBofj%5Bx%5DofRjj%5BWBD%25M%7B%25MWBWB9Ft7t8WBoft8WBoff6WBt7Rjj%5BjtWB&x=190872556faa8e43fa00a89c99d1ad0bdc520d66d12095acaf8cb03f4022dd05

https://www.tagesschau.de/wirtschaft/verbraucher/immobilien-kosten-generationen-100.html