Adultery is only possible if a married woman is involved. It is impossible for an unmarried woman to commit adultery.
Adultery:
Married man + married woman (not his)
Unmarried man + married woman
Not adultery:
Married man + unmarried woman
Unmarried man + unmarried woman
What does the Bible say about whether a married man can commit adultery with an unmarried woman?
Jeremiah 5:7: "How shall I pardon thee for this? thy children have forsaken me, and sworn by them that are no gods: when I had fed them to the full, they then committed adultery, and assembled themselves by troops in the harlots houses."
Revelation 2:20-22: "Notwithstanding I have a few things against thee, because thou sufferest that woman Jezebel, which calleth herself a prophetess, to teach and to seduce my servants to commit fornication, and to eat things sacrificed unto idols. And I gave her space to repent of her fornication; and she repented not. Behold, I will cast her into a bed, and them that commit adultery with her into great tribulation, except they repent of their deeds."
Mark 10:11: "And he saith unto them, Whosoever shall put away his wife, and marry another, committeth adultery against her."
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There's no such thing as adultery with an unmarried woman. It's not possible.
I don't see how you get there.
Jeremiah 5:7
Were the harlots married in the context of the men who "they then committed adultery, and assembled themselves by troops in the harlots houses."
Revelation 2:20-22
Is Jezebel married when God says she has been permitted "to teach and to seduce my servants to commit fornication"? What about "them that commit adultery with her into great tribulation, except they repent of their deeds"?
Mark 10:11
When Christ says that "Whosoever shall put away his wife, and marry another, committeth adultery against her," is he saying the man who has put away his wife to marry another is marrying an already married woman? Is this verse not applicable to a man putting away his wife to marry another virgin?
How do the scriptures quoted above fit in? Any more relevant scriptures showing it's not adultery for a married man to indulge the services of a harlot?
Don't try to make the definition of adultery something that it's not. A wife is a man's property. When that property (his wife) is taken (via sexual intercourse) by another man, that is adultery. A man is not the property of his wife, which is why it is not adultery when a married man engages in sexual intercourse with another unmarried woman. I'm not saying that it's good for him to do so. I'm simply saying that it's not adultery.
(sorry, running low on sats)
Any scripture to support your points about unmarried women?
