MoE comes before SoV according to the Mises/Menger

Not that I care about the theoretical, but the SoV > MoE crowd are "austrian econ" fanbois as well. That's why I brought up Mises/Menger. If you're not, then yea this won't be persuasive. But in that case, I'm curious where are you getting the idea that SoV comes before MoE from?