Legal systems under the state are inherently biased. Judges and courts, funded by taxation and controlled by politicians, cannot impartially adjudicate when the state itself is the primary violator of rights.

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This is what’s happening in Canada it seems.

Why wouldn't it be possible, for a judge to use the law on a politician? Is this only a statement or you have any basis so I can follow your analysis?

Ya, that's why we have juries..

Agreed

That coupled with passing through the extreme filtration and indoctrination system that we call education which would be required to reach such a position.

There are many situations like this that are unfair, and you need to understand and realize it yourself https://www.yachttrading.com/sell-yacht/