If I consider his rather strong position against slavery and his controversial defense against exploitation, via his term 'state of war' against oppressors, then I find it hard to believe that he would want to dispossess people. It seems that such a task would be more fitting for the philosophers of his time that he criticized.

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Maybe he didn't intend for his words to be used in such a way, but I believe the interpretation of his work was used as such.