Yes, some argue that the famous chapter on property, which contains most of the references to Amerindians in the Two Treatises, was written to justify the 17th-century dispossession of the aboriginal peoples of their land, through a vigorous defence of England's ‘superior’ claims to proprietorship.
Discussion
If I consider his rather strong position against slavery and his controversial defense against exploitation, via his term 'state of war' against oppressors, then I find it hard to believe that he would want to dispossess people. It seems that such a task would be more fitting for the philosophers of his time that he criticized.
Maybe he didn't intend for his words to be used in such a way, but I believe the interpretation of his work was used as such.
Thank you.
I decided to go over my book markings and wrote a short overview of how I interpret Locke's position: