nostr:nprofile1qqst0mtgkp3du662ztj3l4fgts0purksu5fgek5n4vgmg9gt2hkn9lqpzdmhxue69uhhwmm59e6hg7r09ehkuef0qys8wumn8ghj7mn0wd68ytn9d9h82mny0fmkzmn6d9njuumsv93k2tchdvwsu I have a question:
If someone breaks into private property (illegally) and uncovers proof that the owner has stolen property — should that evidence be considered valid in a libertarian legal framework?
Rothbard and Hoppe would argue, no. But this does not make sense to me. What is your viewpoint on that? This is not a deductive objective step anymore it seems to me